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It's the Inequality, StupidFollow

#52 Sep 23 2011 at 4:40 PM Rating: Excellent
My ***** is the CEO that tells his employees that the economy is down, so "we have to tighten our belts". The regular employees get a piddling raise, if they get one at all, and the CEO walks off with his 10%+ raise.

#53 Sep 23 2011 at 4:51 PM Rating: Default
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Allegory wrote:
But he's not measuring relative to the rich person's wealth.


Of course he is. The whole point of this thread is. The article linked in the OP is. It's titled "It's the inequality, stupid", not "It's the lack of buying power for the poor, stupid". Can you find me a single fact on that huge list of graphs and charts relating a poor person's relative economic condition to himself in the past?

Quote:
The middle class and poor have lost ground compared to themselves from 30 years ago. Their income has not kept pace with the CPI, regardless of how the rich are doing.


And yet, that's not the argument being made here, is it? By all means, find some other source making this claim, backing it up with facts, and proposing a solution and I'll discuss it with you. I actually agree that this is a more relevant thing to look at. But that's pretty much *never* the argument actually used by those proposing higher taxes on the rich to pay for some needed benefits for the poor.

Which was kind of my exact point. Thanks for at least getting it. Smiley: nod

Quote:
So using your example if yesterday, a poor person has $1, the middle class guy has $5, and the rich guy has $100, and today the poor guy has $.75, the middle class guy has $4, and the rich guy has $500, then yes there has been a real loss to the two largest demographics.


Show me that this is true. From everything I've read, CPI has stayed pretty constant to the applicable wage levels being measured (typically working and lower middle class wages are indexed). But if you can find me something showing that the earnings of the typical working class professions buy (significantly?) less today than some period in the past I'd love to see it. The worst I've seen is that wages are "flat" relative to prices. Obviously, we kinda have to toss out the last few years as outliers, but I just don't see how the general trend of the time frame we're looking at shows what you're saying.


Also, CPI only looks at half the picture. While the purchasing power of staple goods has remained relatively constant, the purchasing power in terms of what traditionally were considered luxury items has risen dramatically at all economic levels. That often has a hell of a lot more to do with determining real standard of living than anything else. When the typical poor person today lives in a nicer home, with a nicer TV, and computers, cell phones, DVR cable boxes, and video games that either didn't exist or were far far out of reach for an equivalent wage earner just 30 years ago, it's hard to argue that their condition has "gotten worse" over that period of time.
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#54 Sep 23 2011 at 8:28 PM Rating: Excellent
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Uglysasquatch, Mercenary Major wrote:
catwho wrote:
#5 - So he's supposed to default on his mortgage so he can move to another city?
That would be foolish. Why wouldn't he sell it? Are poor people monumentally stupid? Rhetorical question by the way. See #4.


Edited, Sep 23rd 2011 7:28pm by Uglysasquatch

Have you sold a house in the States lately?

Yeah, neither has anyone else.
#55 Sep 24 2011 at 4:22 AM Rating: Decent
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Why would I sell? Now is the time to buy property in the US.
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#56 Sep 24 2011 at 6:02 AM Rating: Excellent
gbaji wrote:
Admiral Lubriderm wrote:
The rich become richer, the middle class slightly loses ground, and the poor become poorer. Never mind inequity, how does anyone think that is a good economic model?


You're measuring in terms relative to the rich person's wealth though. I don't agree that's the right way to do it. If yesterday, a poor person has $1, the middle class guy has $5, and the rich guy has $100, and today the poor guy has $2, the middle class guy has $15, and the rich guy has $500, the rich guy has relatively more money compared to the other two guys, but they both have more money relative to what they had before. They didn't get "poorer". They just all got "richer" at different rates.

Economic growth tends to do that over time. It's nothing to be alarmed about and it doesn't mean that anyone is getting screwed.
Nice point, if you were talking constant dollars. Factor in inflation, and our poor are getting poorer, and more numerous.
#57 Sep 24 2011 at 9:57 AM Rating: Excellent
Uglysasquatch, Mercenary Major wrote:
Why would I sell? Now is the time to buy property in the US.


I won't argue with that. We snagged our house a year and a half ago at a fire sale price.
#58 Sep 24 2011 at 10:13 AM Rating: Excellent
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Admiral Lubriderm wrote:
gbaji wrote:
Admiral Lubriderm wrote:
The rich become richer, the middle class slightly loses ground, and the poor become poorer. Never mind inequity, how does anyone think that is a good economic model?


You're measuring in terms relative to the rich person's wealth though. I don't agree that's the right way to do it. If yesterday, a poor person has $1, the middle class guy has $5, and the rich guy has $100, and today the poor guy has $2, the middle class guy has $15, and the rich guy has $500, the rich guy has relatively more money compared to the other two guys, but they both have more money relative to what they had before. They didn't get "poorer". They just all got "richer" at different rates.

Economic growth tends to do that over time. It's nothing to be alarmed about and it doesn't mean that anyone is getting screwed.
Nice point, if you were talking constant dollars. Factor in inflation, and our poor are getting poorer, and more numerous.


Ya, even using Gbaji's example, do we think that that loaf of bread went from 1 dollar to 2 dollars in that same period? Or did it go from 1 dollar to 3 or 4 dollars? In which case the poor person is screwed, and the middle class guy just lost a lot of his spending power. But the rich guy is just fine. So yes, the poor person would get poorer, the middle class person just got poorer, and the rich person just got richer.
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#59 Sep 24 2011 at 11:00 AM Rating: Good
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"Computers" aren't exactly a luxury. Try applying for a job without them.

You wanna apply for that job? ****, son, we don't have paper applications anymore.

...and fuck that "nicer home, with a nicer TV, and computers, cell phones, DVR cable boxes, and video games" when you're working two jobs to cover the rent and put food on the table.
#60 Sep 25 2011 at 1:36 AM Rating: Decent
Sweetums wrote:
"Computers" aren't exactly a luxury. Try applying for a job without them.

I was nice enough to allow my taxes to pay for computers at the library for them to use.

I'm a f'ucking philanthropist.
#61 Sep 25 2011 at 8:24 AM Rating: Excellent
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MoebiusLord wrote:
Sweetums wrote:
"Computers" aren't exactly a luxury. Try applying for a job without them.

I was nice enough to allow my taxes to pay for computers at the library for them to use.

I'm a f'ucking philanthropist.
Ever tried to get a computer at the library? There's a reason I bring my laptop, and it's not because the keyboards are nasty.

If it's busy (which it almost certainly is), you'll wait about 20 minutes to get one, and you're allotted about an hour. Don't finish one before the timer is up? Too bad. Shouldn't have been checking up on the status of your other applications, because if you even get a hold of them, the manager at the store certainly isn't going to tell you about the status of your application over the phone. Somebody's got to use it to catch up on Facebook and anime.


With cuts to library funding, it sure isn't going to get any better than this.



Edited, Sep 25th 2011 9:30am by Sweetums
#62 Sep 26 2011 at 4:32 PM Rating: Decent
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TirithRR wrote:
Admiral Lubriderm wrote:
gbaji wrote:
Admiral Lubriderm wrote:
The rich become richer, the middle class slightly loses ground, and the poor become poorer. Never mind inequity, how does anyone think that is a good economic model?


You're measuring in terms relative to the rich person's wealth though. I don't agree that's the right way to do it. If yesterday, a poor person has $1, the middle class guy has $5, and the rich guy has $100, and today the poor guy has $2, the middle class guy has $15, and the rich guy has $500, the rich guy has relatively more money compared to the other two guys, but they both have more money relative to what they had before. They didn't get "poorer". They just all got "richer" at different rates.

Economic growth tends to do that over time. It's nothing to be alarmed about and it doesn't mean that anyone is getting screwed.
Nice point, if you were talking constant dollars. Factor in inflation, and our poor are getting poorer, and more numerous.


Ya, even using Gbaji's example, do we think that that loaf of bread went from 1 dollar to 2 dollars in that same period? Or did it go from 1 dollar to 3 or 4 dollars? In which case the poor person is screwed, and the middle class guy just lost a lot of his spending power. But the rich guy is just fine. So yes, the poor person would get poorer, the middle class person just got poorer, and the rich person just got richer.


I was taking into account inflation, hence the point I made in my last post about CPI over time. Wages have remained flat compared to inflation but many products not included in inflation (or cpi) have dramatically decreased in cost. Also many products have gotten better and/or safer as well. The net result is that a poor person is better off today than a similarly poor person was 30 years ago, and that person was better off than a similarly poor person 30 years before that, and so on.

Obviously, the gain isn't in the staple goods. If you stop and think about it, you'll understand why. If we are comparing two similarly poor people from two different periods of time, the method we use to do that is to compare two people earning similar relative amounts of money. How do we measure that? We measure the cost to buy a basket of staple goods. By definition, those two people will both be able to afford the same number of loafs of bread, gallons of milk, dozens of eggs, etc. It means nothing to look at that and declare that the poor aren't improving because they are no better off than they were. They can't be! We're literally measuring two people who can buy the exact same amount of that stuff.


What has improved is all the other stuff. That's the point. A person who can afford X loafs of bread, gallons of milk, and dozens of eggs per month 30 years ago, will find that his dollars can afford to buy him many more things today (in addition to the staples) than they could 30 years ago (or whatever time period you choose to use). This is why the whole "wages are flat for the poor" is an irrelevant argument. We pin inflation to the costs of those staple goods and then decide who is in which poverty category based on those results crossed with earnings. Think about what that means for a minute. We can't measure whether "the poor" are doing better or worse by measuring just those things. We have to measure the relative cost of non-staple goods to staple goods to make that assessment. It's the only way to derive anything meaningful out of those figures.
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#63 Sep 26 2011 at 5:08 PM Rating: Excellent
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Or you can evaluate the percentages of the population and see what they can afford.

comparing someone in the bottom 20% 30 years ago and someone in the bottom 30% today is also a valid comparison, and far more useful then your comparison.

if 30 years ago you take the poorest person who can buy 5 loaves of bread, and now to buy 5 loaves of bread the a person is no longer the poorest, it looks like things haven't changed or have gotten better, but in reality they haven't

Edited, Sep 26th 2011 6:09pm by Xsarus
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#64 Sep 26 2011 at 5:14 PM Rating: Excellent
I would like to point out that the poorest person 30-60 years ago was likely permitted to grow food on his own property or rental property, something not actually guaranteed today.
#65 Sep 26 2011 at 6:04 PM Rating: Decent
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Sir Xsarus wrote:
Or you can evaluate the percentages of the population and see what they can afford.

comparing someone in the bottom 20% 30 years ago and someone in the bottom 30% today is also a valid comparison, and far more useful then your comparison.


How is it far more useful in this context though? If we're looking at some kind of delta of inequality between "rich and poor", then that question assumes that the "poor" person we're looking at has the same relative income/job/whatever as the person we look at in the past. That's what we're doing for the "rich" person, right? Isn't that what you're doing (more or less) when you compare a CEO's salary relative to the workers in his company today versus X years ago?


What you're trying to measure is really whether the total number of people we might label "poor" has grown. That's a legitimate thing to look at, but it really has absolutely nothing at all to do with the income inequality issue that started this thread.

Quote:
if 30 years ago you take the poorest person who can buy 5 loaves of bread, and now to buy 5 loaves of bread the a person is no longer the poorest, it looks like things haven't changed or have gotten better, but in reality they haven't


Ok. But you'd need to provide some kind of numbers to support any argument like this. As I pointed out earlier, the link in the OP didn't even come close to touching the question of whether a poor person's standard of living has gone up, down, or stayed the same during this time period. Isn't that kind of important to the overall question though? Isn't the argument being made that the process of rich people getting richer makes poor people poorer? Shouldn't we then look at the condition of "the poor" and find out if they're actually better or worse off?

The absence of even an attempt to do that speaks volumes about the claims being made. If there were clear and undeniable data showing that folks in the bottom 20% live much worse lives today than say 30 years ago, wouldn't *that* be put front and center as exhibit A in the argument that while rich people got richer, the poor got poorer? If the best someone working so hard to make that argument can do is basically make comparisons of the ratio of earnings, doesn't that strongly suggest that they can't show any significant reduction in overall quality of life?

Again, the fact that someone else has doubled his earnings while yours stayed the same doesn't actually make your earnings half as valuable. Yet, that's basically the argument being used. It's an incredibly flawed argument though.
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#66 Sep 27 2011 at 5:54 AM Rating: Excellent
OK, so ten years ago X% of the population could buy one mud cake and Y% could buy thirty gold toilets. Now, ten years later X can buy two mud cakes and Y can only buy thirty-five gold toilets. Awesome deal! The only problem is that the population of X has doubled (drawn on from Z, the middle class).

Personally, I'd rather be buying gold toilets, but I'm far more likely to get shuffled into the mud cake crowd.
#67 Sep 27 2011 at 10:36 AM Rating: Good
gbaji wrote:
Again, the fact that someone else has doubled his earnings while yours stayed the same doesn't actually make your earnings half as valuable. Yet, that's basically the argument being used. It's an incredibly flawed argument though.


It does if there are a large number of people in the same space as you competing for the same resources, which drives up the price for those resources.

Inexpensive apartments are hard to find in my town, partially because the developers know they're mostly catering to a college student crowd, but also because they make more profit on high-expense luxury apartments than they do the lower priced, more economical units. The result is that some two bedroom units in town cost as much as they would in NYC, but since the cost is "split" into two rooms they advertise the space for half the price. When 30% of the population of a city is below the povery level in earnings, but 90% of the apartments cost $500 a bedroom, the result is competition for "cheap" places, driving the price up. A two bedroom I rented back in 1999 for $450 (for both rooms) is now being advertised for $700.

We have subsidized housing in town, but the waiting list for it is long and steep, and the city has discussed "moving" the public housing from its current location near the center of town (incidentally, also near the university where most of the inhabitants work) and sticking it about ten miles outside the center of town, connective via only a bus line. Why? So they can sell the housing units (or the land that it sits on) to developers, who will triple the price of the units. This means that 1. the residents will either have to pay much more money to stay where they already are or 2. they will have to move, and potentially deal with an hour long bus ride to continue to work where they are. Their purchasing power has stayed exactly the same, but the resources have diminished (or their time will.)

The free market is failing. A developer would rather have a half-empty building of luxury apartments than build a more inexpensive unit that will be guaranteed to be full 99% of the time. (This is actually why quite a few developers around here have since gone out of business. Unfortunately, another developer would just buy the property at a firesale price - and then proceed to offer the units for the original cost the first developer wanted, raking in even more profits.)

The city has tried various things to encourage more reasonably priced housing (so they can go ahead and sell now VERY valuable land under the public housing off), but no good solution has appeared yet. In the meantime, the average price of rent here has doubled in the last twenty years, and it's only going to get worse.

#68REDACTED, Posted: Sep 27 2011 at 11:17 AM, Rating: Sub-Default, (Expand Post) Cat,
#69 Sep 27 2011 at 11:25 AM Rating: Excellent
ITT: A brand new apartment complex is a ghetto.

Interestingly, the public housing here in town is some of the cleanest, neatest places around, the laundry hanging from lines in the backyards notwithstanding (as the Republicans point out, dryers are a luxury good the poor shouldn't have access to.) The lawns are well established and lush and green and have survived the droughts without any issues, the parking situation is under control because adequate parking was planned for the area - and few residents own cars (unlike within the university proper, where a parking spot will set you back $300 a semester), and the rows of houses are neat and tidy. Housing properties in the older private housing nearby have soared, as the city has expanded outward. Fifty years ago it may have been a ghetto; today it is prime real estate.
#70REDACTED, Posted: Sep 27 2011 at 12:30 PM, Rating: Sub-Default, (Expand Post) cat,
#71 Sep 27 2011 at 12:42 PM Rating: Excellent
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#72 Sep 27 2011 at 2:26 PM Rating: Good
varusword75 wrote:
cat,

Quote:
Interestingly, the public housing here in town is some of the cleanest, neatest places around


Give it a couple of years. And yes a brand new apt complex can be ghetto as well. Here in knoxville we built some more really nice public housing a few years ago. The place is still ghetto.


That's just it - those units are 40-50 years old now, which is why the real estate is so valuable now. When they were built, it was on what was then the outskirts of town. The units themselves were mostly built in the 1960s, but they were well built, made of brick, and designed to be small homes with yards and gardens (unlike some of the apartments in the area that DID turn ratty during that time frame).
#73REDACTED, Posted: Sep 27 2011 at 2:43 PM, Rating: Sub-Default, (Expand Post) lagaga,
#74 Sep 27 2011 at 3:25 PM Rating: Decent
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catwho wrote:
gbaji wrote:
Again, the fact that someone else has doubled his earnings while yours stayed the same doesn't actually make your earnings half as valuable. Yet, that's basically the argument being used. It's an incredibly flawed argument though.


It does if there are a large number of people in the same space as you competing for the same resources, which drives up the price for those resources.


Sure. But that's a local issue, not the broad "rich are taking from the poor" issue. Wages are adjusted for inflation and factored into CPI. Those largely use staple (which include housing costs) as their basis. Which means that if someone working a given job is earning a volume of money with the same purchasing power that job provided 30 years ago, then he (and others in the same or similar jobs) are not any "poorer" than they were before. No matter if the rich guys doubled their purchasing power over that same time period or not.

Quote:
Inexpensive apartments are hard to find in my town...


In your town. If this was true everywhere (and for an extended period of time) we'd be seeing it in longer term national CPI and wage/inflation trends. We haven't. That's why I keep asking for data showing that a given range of "poor people" are less able to afford staple goods today than they were at some point in the past. That's the data you should be looking for to support your argument, but I've yet to see anyone produce any.

The data in the OP certainly didn't, which I why I raised this point in the first place.
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#75 Sep 27 2011 at 6:47 PM Rating: Decent
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It's really obnoxious that catwho often manages to be on the right side of an argument by sheer luck, but backs it up with anecdotal evidence which is just as annoying as (but 50 times longer than) varus's tripe.
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