Sweetums wrote:
I'm just going to ask this out of idle curiosity: if socialism leads to the widening of the gap between the haves and have-nots, why does Europe have less of a gap than the United States?
It doesn't. No one said it did. The argument I'm making is that no one has yet produced sufficient reason to assume that the gap between rich and poor is any indication of the standard of living of the poor in that country. Or the overall economic health itself for that matter.
It's a really simple thing to see. Imagine two countries with identical adjusted dollar values. In countryA, the poor earn 10k/year and the rich earn 50k/year. In countryB, the poor earn 25k/year, and the rich earn 100M/year. Does the fact that there's a smaller gap between rich and poor in one country mean that the poor are better off? Nope.
The best measurement is standard of living. You rank your entire economic spectrum based on what kinds of things they have. What percentage of the population can obtain food consistently? What percentage have a place to live? What percentage have electricity, phone, TV? What percentage own a car (or can otherwise afford transportation)? What percentage of the people can buy other things above and beyond those things? We could then measure things like number of people who own computers, or a second TV, or can afford to eat out on occasion. We can pick any specific measure of standard of living you like, but it ought to actually be in someway related to standard of living. Simply tossing out a purely relative comparison while avoiding actually looking at the conditions people are living fails to address the real question.
It is amazing how many people just repeat the mantra about rich and poor, but never bother to verify if it actually means what they've been taught it means.
Edited, Oct 14th 2009 8:17pm by gbaji