LockeColeMA wrote:
gbaji wrote:
LockeColeMA wrote:
And several surveys since then in the US report the percentage to be between 6-10%. Several also note that many people have had same-sex thoughts and inclinations, but had not acted upon them. A 2008 survey shows about 9% of men had sex with another man within the past 12 months (note, this is Joseph Fried's survey, and was comparing Republicans to Democrats on a variety of factors, not just sexual habits).
No. It's not.
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Democrats and Republicans - Rhetoric and Reality: Comparing the Voters in Statistics and Anecdotes (Paperback)
Yes. it really is comparing the two. It's the freaking title of his work.
Yes. But that's *not* the survey that generated the 9% rate. You quoted a statistic, then said that it was from Joeseph Fried's survey. I said "No. It's not".
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True, my bad, I misread that part. That means that, of the voting public in those years, about 4.5% of major party voters engaged in homosexual activity.
No. It means that of the population of people who took part in the survey, that was the approximate percentage of men overall who reported having had sex with another man in the previous 12 months. Um... Which is less than half the percentage you claimed originally. Hence, my response.
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Assuming that previous figures in this thread are correct about homosexual behavior and 47% of gay men do not engage in **** sex, that means that 4.5% is only 53% of the gay population. I suppose you could filter it further by saying (27%?) didn't do anything, but still that would bring the proportion to around 6.5-7%.
Er? The question asked (which is included in a nifty little chart on the page I linked) was: "(Asked of Men) Have your sex partners in the last 12 months been men?". There was no mention of **** sex, so I'm not sure what you're blathering on about unless you want to produce an actual cite and source to quote from.
I don't see how you can assume that "having sex" means "having **** sex". Lots of gay men don't have **** sex (53% apparently), but I'm quite sure every single one of them, if asked that question would have responded "yes". A "sex partner" doesn't just mean "someone you have **** sex with".
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here was a separate survey (mailed questionnaires) in which 5% of woman and 9% of men reported "frequent ongoing homosexual experiences". Both of those really are outliers though.
How so?
Do you know what an outlier is? They're survey results which are noticeably higher or lower than the results of most similar surveys. When 90% of surveys place homosexuality rates in the 3-4% range, you can pretty safely label the small number of 1% ad 9% results as "outliers". They "lie outside" the common range for that subject. Hence the word "outlier".
When discussing a topic, it's misleading to quote just an outlier result. Yes. It's true that "a survey showed that 9% of men were gay", but that's not a fair assessment of the issue at hand. Most surveys don't show that result. They place the rate at 3-4%.
Oh. And for the sake of completeness. If we assume a 3-4% rate, then (scarily enough), Varus' earlier "60x" statement is actually mathematically correct. Miracles do happen...