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#127 Mar 08 2009 at 9:14 AM Rating: Decent
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trickybeck wrote:
Like I said before "based on the descriptions provided." I didn't know any difference between zoophilia and bestiality before reading this thread. You asked someone what the difference was, they told you, and you said "oh ok they're the same thing." Which was obtuse. If you wanted to argue semantics, which you are doing now, you should have said that in the first place.

It's not my fault you chose to not look up the meaning of the words you were arguing about. I said "oh ok they're the same thing," because I instantly realized that the perceived distinction Anna informed me about was an imaginary definition tacked on by a minority. You created an argument based on what you thought the words meant, and it turns out you were wrong about that. Is it really so difficult to admit such a tiny mistake?
trickybeck wrote:
So you DO see that there's a psychological difference. Why didn't you just say "I was wrong" in the first place.

You're just scavenging now.

1. That comment was speculation about why some zoophiles might be defensive. It has no bearing on the difference between bestiality and zoophilia. I included it because talking with you was boring, and I was hoping to spark a discussion with someone else. It is entirely unrelated to our argument. You're still wrong; don't grasp at straws.

2. I had already qualified my statement of no difference with "As far as classifying paraphilia goes, there is no distinction. That is all I care about." I only cared about knowing the differences that might set apart a paraphilia as separate, and this does not. I don't have to give a damn about psychological differences.

Edited, Mar 8th 2009 12:24pm by Allegory
#128 Mar 08 2009 at 10:27 AM Rating: Good
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Allegory wrote:
trickybeck wrote:
Like I said before "based on the descriptions provided." I didn't know any difference between zoophilia and bestiality before reading this thread. You asked someone what the difference was, they told you, and you said "oh ok they're the same thing." Which was obtuse. If you wanted to argue semantics, which you are doing now, you should have said that in the first place.

It's not my fault you chose to not look up the meaning of the words you were arguing about. I said "oh ok they're the same thing," because I instantly realized that the perceived distinction Anna informed me about was an imaginary definition tacked on by a minority. You created an argument based on what you thought the words meant, and it turns out you were wrong about that. Is it really so difficult to admit such a tiny mistake?

Like I said, I didn't have anything I "thought" the words meant, in my original post I clearly stated "based on the descriptions provided." And as I just said, you only wanted to argue semantics. Which is fine, but you didn't make that clear in the least.
trickybeck wrote:
I only cared about knowing the differences that might set apart a paraphilia as separate, and this does not. I don't have to give a damn about psychological differences.
If you don't care about the psychological differences, then you're not really talking about paraphilia. Paraphilia IS psychological.



Edited, Mar 8th 2009 1:28pm by trickybeck
#129 Mar 08 2009 at 10:54 AM Rating: Good
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trickybeck wrote:
Like I said, I didn't have anything I "thought" the words meant, in my original post I clearly stated "based on the descriptions provided." And as I just said, you only wanted to argue semantics. Which is fine, but you didn't make that clear in the least.

God, I could not have been more clear about the importance of semantics from the beginning.

1. "What's the perceived difference between zoophilia and beastiality by those involved?" Here I am asking about the definitions of words from the very start.

2. "As far as classifying paraphilia goes, there is no distinction. That is all I care about." Here I am once again confirming that I care about the definitions, and whether bestiality is somehow a separate paraphilia from zoophilia.

All of that occurred before you posted.

3. You then said "Except that there is a distinction." in direct response to "As far as classifying paraphilia goes, there is no distinction. That is all I care about." I don't know how you didn't udnerstand you were engaging me in a semantic argument. Classifying depends entirely on how the categories are define, and you were telling me these two terms fit within separate categories when I had thought they belonged in the same one.

4. I then respond to you by quoting the definitions, semantics, of the terms and showing how they do not fit in separate paraphilia categories.

5. I then quote the definitions again.

If you hadn't figured you were arguing semantics with me by now then that's your fault, not mine.
trickybeck wrote:
Paraphilia IS psychological.

Way to miss the point. Yes paraphilia is psychological, but as I said from the beginning "As far as classifying paraphilia goes, there is no distinction. That is all I care about." Only the psychological elements directly related to classifying paraphilia are important; nothing else related to psychology matters. Classifying paraphilia isn't dependent on motivation. It doesn't matter why someone likes jerking off to horses, only that they do. Any contention you could raise about my speculation on motivation is entirely irrelevant to classifying paraphilia.
#130 Mar 08 2009 at 11:18 AM Rating: Excellent
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Paraphilia is fear of parachutes, right? Or is that people who love parachutes?
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#131 Mar 08 2009 at 3:41 PM Rating: Good
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Allegory wrote:
The One and Only Deadgye wrote:
Well this thread was moved from =28, and some of the regulars there don't like clicking links. We're all different types of lazy. Smiley: lol

What are you talking about? As pointless as this discussion is, most the posters prefer links or at the very least apathetic. If you quote a news article without posting a link people become irate.

Edited, Mar 7th 2009 5:16am by Allegory


I don't click links because you people link to and read some stupid ****.
#132 Mar 08 2009 at 3:58 PM Rating: Decent
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Nadenu wrote:
I don't click links because you people link to and read some stupid sh*t.

The question was which was the preferable alternative. Would you rather have a tiny link to stupid sh*t that you can easily skip over or someone pasting a wall of text of that stupid sh*t that you read halfway into before you realize what it is because there was no link for you to check if the source was stupid sh*t?

Edited, Mar 8th 2009 6:59pm by Allegory
#133 Mar 08 2009 at 5:17 PM Rating: Good
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I just prefer when people don't link to stupid shit. I'm a rebel like that.
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#134 Mar 08 2009 at 7:10 PM Rating: Good
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A paraphilia as defined by the DSM-IV is used for specific purposes, mainly communication between mental health professionals-- subgroups have the right to define themselves. If people want to make a difference between bestialist and zoophile, they certainly have the legitimate right. It doesn't make it more or less imaginary than any other subgroup defining themselves.
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#135 Mar 08 2009 at 7:31 PM Rating: Decent
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Baron von Annabella wrote:
If people want to make a difference between bestialist and zoophile, they certainly have the legitimate right. It doesn't make it more or less imaginary than any other subgroup defining themselves.

Then they can invent a new term, but a minority can't redefine an existing term already in that context, not without stupidly breeding unnecessary confusion. Several people misspelling "the" as "teh" doesn't make "teh" a legitimate alternate spelling. If I chose to define redefine "female" as "a pretty person" since I'm attracted to females and "male" as "an ugly person" since I'm not attracted to males then I'd be creating confusion every time I used those words in the context of describing people.
#136 Mar 08 2009 at 8:15 PM Rating: Good
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Allegory wrote:
Baron von Annabella wrote:
If people want to make a difference between bestialist and zoophile, they certainly have the legitimate right. It doesn't make it more or less imaginary than any other subgroup defining themselves.

Then they can invent a new term, but a minority can't redefine an existing term already in that context, not without stupidly breeding unnecessary confusion. Several people misspelling "the" as "teh" doesn't make "teh" a legitimate alternate spelling. If I chose to define redefine "female" as "a pretty person" since I'm attracted to females and "male" as "an ugly person" since I'm not attracted to males then I'd be creating confusion every time I used those words in the context of describing people.


You don't seem to know how psychological terms are created then. If for nothing else, they are changing all the time when certain subgroups needs become prominent and when things go in and out of fashion. Homosexuality used to be considered a "sexual orientation disturbance".

It is operational language, not meant to be essentialist. It will change as the needs and attitudes of people change vis a vis the psychiatric profession.

Edited, Mar 9th 2009 12:17am by Annabella
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#137 Mar 08 2009 at 8:25 PM Rating: Decent
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Baron von Annabella wrote:
It is operational language, not meant to be essentialist. It will change as the needs and attitudes of people change vis a vis the psychiatric profession.

1. I'll give you that words can go anywhere. "Car" could become a verb describing a new type of dance. But right now bestiality and zoophilia are not where some perceive them to be. People using them to separate the involvement of affection are still using them incorrectly.

2. These words are not ambiguous synonyms. It's not like how "laugh," and "chuckle" can be easily substituted and thus easily evolve their own connotations. Bestiality is an act and zoophilia is a sexual preference. It'd be like mixing up "driving" and "car." I'd like to buy the green driving please. Cars tend to be faster while drivings tend to be slower.



I don't see why it is so hard to accept that some people use words incorrectly.

Edited, Mar 8th 2009 11:26pm by Allegory
#138 Mar 08 2009 at 8:25 PM Rating: Good
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As a woman, the issue of consent by both parties to sexual intercourse, seems a rather essential distinction.
#139 Mar 08 2009 at 8:30 PM Rating: Good
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I don't see why it is so hard to accept that some people use words incorrectly.


Because you are both being unnecessarily concrete and seeming to not acknowledge the realities that language changes, it's political and if a group wants acceptance, it is in their best interest to change the definitions of word. I personally don't care about zoophile needs but really, language changes when culture changes.

The definition of paraphilia has changed alot in the last few editions of the DSM.

Edited, Mar 9th 2009 12:40am by Annabella
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#140 Mar 08 2009 at 8:46 PM Rating: Decent
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Baron von Annabella wrote:
Because you are both being unnecessarily concrete and seeming to not acknowledge the realities that language changes, it's political and if a group wants acceptance, it is in their best interest to change the definitions of word. I personally don't care about zoophile needs but really, language changes when culture changes.

I'm not rejecting that it can change. I'm rejecting that it has changed, in this instance. There are too many problems with the stated definitions.

1. Too few people are using the words that way.
2. There is not backing from a legitimate source.
3. The words already have meanings in that context.
4. The words are not similar enough to make them two side of the same coin.


I feel like this is silly Anna because I can see your same argument being made for someone misusing "they're" and "their." You're inflating the issue.

Edited, Mar 8th 2009 11:48pm by Allegory
#141 Mar 08 2009 at 8:54 PM Rating: Good
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Allegory wrote:

I'm not rejecting that it can change. I'm rejecting that it has changed, in this instance. There are too many problems with the stated definitions.

1. Too few people are using the words that way.
2. There is not backing from a legitimate source.[/b]
3. The words already have meanings in that context.
4. The words are not similar enough to make them two side of the same coin.


So, your implication is that we can't discuss the differences made or people can't redefine language, even among their subgroup, unless there is widespread consensus. Definition changes start small--within small groups and it has to do with vantage point--people in subgroups see things differently.

It doesn't matter if is a minority-- it doesn't make it illegitimate. Your contentions here are difficult to understand, especially given your initial question:

Quote:

What's the perceived difference between zoophilia and beastiality by those involved?



Why ask about how people perceive the difference and then immediately dismiss it because mainstream definitions are different?

You swing between trying to understand people's personal experience and then being dismissive when they don't let society define the language used to describe their behavior.

Quote:

I feel like this is silly Anna because I can see your same argument being made for someone misusing "they're" and "their." You're inflating the issue.


You dismiss the power and significance of connotative meanings consistently, Allegory and I think this is another one of those times.

Edited, Mar 9th 2009 12:58am by Annabella
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#142 Mar 08 2009 at 8:57 PM Rating: Good
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If one of the perceived differences is obtaining consent from the animal, then I think that's a pretty large and meaningful difference right there.
#143 Mar 08 2009 at 9:31 PM Rating: Decent
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Baron von Annabella wrote:
So, your implication is that we can't discuss the differences made or people can't redefine language, even among their subgroup, unless there is widespread consensus. Definition changes start small--within small groups and it has to do with vantage point--people in subgroups see things differently.

I listed several problems with the terms here, and that list is neither exhaustive nor entirely specific.

Allow me to give you an example of changing language which I accept. "Wavedash" is a term used to describe a type of maneuver in the game Super Smash Bros. Melee. It is not known to the greater public, and it is not in any of the most prominent dictionaries. However, it does have several elements which allow me to consider it legitimate.

1. It is widely accepted in the Smash Bros. subculture. Anyone who plays the game competitively would know of this term. It is not the minority of a minority, meaning it is not just limited to a few within the subculture but the entire subculture.

2. It is recognized by organizers within the subculture. People who take on some sort of leadership role by hosting tournaments, gathering game data, or dominate the tournament scene acknowledge this term.

3. The term is original and not duplicated in the same context. "Wavedashing" cannot refer to anything else in the context of smash bros.

4. The word makes grammatical sense. The term is shaped as a gerund and used as a gerund. when used as a verb the term is shaped as a verb such as "to wavedashed" or "he wavedashed."
Baron von Annabella wrote:
Why ask about how people perceive the difference and then immediately dismiss it because mainstream definitions are different?

I ask for two reasons. First, I assumed that there could be a legitimate distinction of which I was not aware; I assumed I was potentially wrong. Second, I was innately curious about what distinction--even if it was incorrect--some might have created, and what their motivations may have been.

It's exactly the same as if I were doing homework with a friend and we arrived at a different answer for the same problem. First I am uncertain if I am correct, maybe he saw/did something I didn't think of. Second, even if he was wrong I'm interested in where he went wrong. You wording of "immediately dismissive" is accurate but gives the connotation that my action was thoughtless or in some way undesirable. If my friend got the answer wrong and I saw why, then I would immediately say "This is what you did wrong." And since my friends aren't insecure and pedantic they would fix their mistake and we would move on.
Baron von Annabella wrote:
You swing between trying to understand people's personal experience and then being dismissive when they don't let society define the language used to describe their behavior.

It needs to be perpetrated in a sensible way for others to accept it. No one in the near future is going to accept me making my own definitions for "driving" and "car" in the way I posted earlier. The words simply don't make enough sense as I have used them.

Would you have any problem with me using driving and car in the way I posted earlier? How is that situation significantly different from bestiality and zoophilia?
Quote:
You dismiss the power and significance of connotative meanings consistently, Allegory and I think this is another one of those times.

And I think you're making a mountain out of a molehill. People make mistakes sometimes. Lots of people use "literally" as an exaggeration rather than to mean "actually." If enough people used it incorrectly, then that usage would probably eventually become correct, but until then can't we just say these people are using the word wrong? That's the kind of situation you're defending Anna. You're telling me I can't tell these people they're using "literally" incorrectly.

Edited, Mar 9th 2009 12:32am by Allegory
#144 Mar 08 2009 at 9:46 PM Rating: Good
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You completely miss the point, Allegory. The people in the subculture find the language imprecise and have sought to change the definitions because of distinctions they find important in terms of defining their behavior and by extension who they are. People sometimes like to define their own behavior. You dismissed it because under your definitions, you don't find the differences important. You can feel all you want that it doesn't matter to you. What is the problem is that you are trying to make it a problem with linguistic precision and somehow there are these arbitrary, made-up rules that you hold about how language is constructed that bears little resemblance to how language is constructed.

Again, you miss the point with your wavedash analogy. Different subcultures are organized differently-- to even imply that Super Smash Brothers, by the way, equals a subculture is bizarre. You can't extrapolate the rules about how a game's language is made to understand society-- it only becomes relevant if it makes it outside of that game itself and therefore becomes part of the gamer subculture--which actually exists. That is when people will define stuff on their own. Second, stuff and language changes in a subculture either from the bottom up or the top down. The "organizers" of this subculture, like most of those that are illegal or underground, are not widely publicized but it is clear that people are organizing on the internet and there is starting to be some common language used.

The idea that the word is different and that makes it legitimate is both odd and untrue. For example, the definition of "*****" has changed radically within the ***** community and now by extension, within society as a whole to some extent. It's the same way that people changed the definition of the word "wicked," "cool" or "mad." There were no organizers. The original word still exists. Your rules about language, in fact, seems to be completely made up and arbitrary.

Quote:

It needs to be perpetrated in a sensible way for others to accept it.


Sensible way? People in a subculture educate others and publicize the new definition and distinction of the word.

I'd be curious where you get your ideas about how language is supposed to be legitimized and how it changes b/c they seems arbitrary and self-constructed.

Quote:

And I think you're making a mountain out of a molehill. People make mistakes sometimes. Lots of people use "literally" as an exaggeration rather than to mean "actually." If enough people used it incorrectly, then that usage would probably eventually become correct, but until then can't we just say these people are using the word wrong? That's the kind of situation you're defending Anna. You're telling me I can't tell these people they're using "literally" incorrectly.


I don't think you get the significance of the change in definition because you dismiss connotation and self-definition in language.

And it's not the same thing at all. They know the original definition--it's a deliberate change to prove a point.

Edited, Mar 9th 2009 2:01am by Annabella
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#145 Mar 09 2009 at 9:29 AM Rating: Good
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Again, you miss the point with your wavedash analogy. Different subcultures are organized differently-- to even imply that Super Smash Brothers, by the way, equals a subculture is bizarre. You can't extrapolate the rules about how a game's language is made to understand society-- it only becomes relevant if it makes it outside of that game itself and therefore becomes part of the gamer subculture--which actually exists. That is when people will define stuff on their own. Second, stuff and language changes in a subculture either from the bottom up or the top down. The "organizers" of this subculture, like most of those that are illegal or underground, are not widely publicized but it is clear that people are organizing on the internet and there is starting to be some common language used.

Incorrect. "Gamers who play Smash Bros." is (by it's very definition) a subculture. Stating otherwise completely misses the entire point of that definition. Would you say that "MMO players" or even "WoW players" are not a subculture of the population? Either you don't know the definition or are confusing it somehow.

Quote:
Sensible way? People in a subculture educate others and publicize the new definition and distinction of the word.

I'd be curious where you get your ideas about how language is supposed to be legitimized and how it changes b/c they seems arbitrary and self-constructed.

At some point in the future that definition you have provided may be apt, but right now it is an incorrect one. This I believe is the crux of this issue.
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#146 Mar 09 2009 at 9:46 AM Rating: Good
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At some point in the future that definition you have provided may be apt, but right now it is an incorrect one
. This I believe is the crux of this issue.


How so?

Quote:

Incorrect. "Gamers who play Smash Bros." is (by it's very definition) a subculture. Stating otherwise completely misses the entire point of that definition. Would you say that "MMO players" or even "WoW players" are not a subculture of the population? Either you don't know the definition or are confusing it somehow.


Define subculture and say what profession defines it this way, b/c sociologically, "gamers who play smash brothers" does not meet the criteria to be subculture. There is a difference between subculture and a group that does stuff together--like engineers aren't a member of a subculture, even if they know the same terminology.

Like Allegory, you are speaking as an authority on a subject that you seem to know nothing about.

Edited, Mar 9th 2009 1:49pm by Annabella
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#147 Mar 09 2009 at 9:47 AM Rating: Good
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How so?


Because presently your definition is incorrect.

It may in the future be correct, but currently it is not.
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#148 Mar 09 2009 at 9:50 AM Rating: Good
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Timelordwho wrote:
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How so?


Because presently your definition is incorrect.

It may in the future be correct, but currently it is not.


Language is part of a sociological process--it is not either true or untrue but rather its reality is constructed by the speakers.

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#149 Mar 09 2009 at 9:59 AM Rating: Good
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Language is part of a sociological process--it is not either true or untrue but rather its reality is constructed by the speakers.


And the audience you are speaking do does not recognize your language, thus it is not an effective communication tool. Therefore it's intent is unfulfilled, ergo it becomes false by context.
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#150 Mar 09 2009 at 10:02 AM Rating: Good
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Timelordwho wrote:
Quote:

Language is part of a sociological process--it is not either true or untrue but rather its reality is constructed by the speakers.


And the audience you are speaking do does not recognize your language, thus it is not an effective communication tool. Therefore it's intent is unfulfilled, ergo it becomes false by context.


They are using language as a political tool--changing the meaning brings new ideas into the world in a way that nothing else will. Groups have been doing this for millenia to promote new ideas. It's how language changes to reflect culture and how language changes cultural expectations.

Do you guys ever study sociolinguistics? Or for that matter, linguistics at all?

This is one of those moments where I don't even care about the original point as much (ie, i'm not invested in promoting zoophile ideals) but damnit, you guys are just making up **** about culture and language.

Edited, Mar 9th 2009 2:04pm by Annabella
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#151 Mar 09 2009 at 10:10 AM Rating: Good
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They are using language as a political tool--changing the meaning brings new ideas into the world in a way that nothing else will. Groups have been doing this for millenia to promote new ideas. It's how language changes to reflect culture and how language changes cultural expectations.


Yes I recognize that. It still does not change the definition until it becomes more widely accepted. Otherwise every time Gbaji tried to change the definition of a term we would accept that new definition as a valid usage. We don't because it would needlessly confuse and muddle the entire argumentation process. There is a reason we have generally accepted definitions for thing; we want to have a clean and accurate tool for discussion and dissemination.

Quote:
Do you guys ever study sociolinguistics? Or for that matter, linguistics at all?


Yes. I doubt most do, nor have a real grasp of what it means, or have any interest in learning either.
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