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#152 Oct 14 2008 at 3:08 AM Rating: Good
Just give them all guns and let natural selection take its course.

Over time, if the homosexuals win, there will finally be an end to this whole stupid "reproduction" idea Smiley: thumbsup
#153 Oct 14 2008 at 4:30 AM Rating: Excellent
Gurue
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And what about the elderly couple that gets married? I'm not talking about the couple that's been together since 1932. I'm talking about the widow and widower that meet when they're both in their 70's and get married so that they don't die alone. NO ONE is ever going to assume that this marriage is capable of producing children.
#154 Oct 14 2008 at 4:40 AM Rating: Excellent
What amuses me about this argument is that I was married to a man for ten years so he could have health insurance. We had separate bedrooms, and if one of us was seeing someone it wasn't uncommon to have them over for a bite and a movie. We were roommates with a very fancy certificate and a nice tax break.

But now if I were to fall in love with a woman and want to spend the rest of my life with her, we couldn't marry because it would "violate the sanctity of the institution." Smiley: oyvey
#155 Oct 14 2008 at 5:20 AM Rating: Decent
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Overlord danieldakkak wrote:

Over time, if the homosexuals win, there will finally be an end to this whole stupid "reproduction" idea Smiley: thumbsup
Win what?
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#156 Oct 14 2008 at 5:49 AM Rating: Excellent
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gbaji wrote:
Belkira the Tulip wrote:
And yet... that still has nothing to do with why homosexual marriage is not recognized by the government. Because, see, a man may not be able to get another man pregnant, but they can still adopt a child.


You're changing the subject. I was responding to the argument that *if* marriage is about having children, then sterile heterosexual couples should be excluded just as homosexual couples are.

If you want to discuss whether that's why marriage exists, than by all means do so. But don't pretend that by doing so you at all counter my argument. Can we agree that if the criteria for marriage has to do with the possibility of that couple generating a child that it certainly makes sense to restrict it to a couple consisting of one man and one woman?

Yes or no? Once you answer that, I'll gladly work to the next step. I've just learned that if I don't make you do this, we'll end up going around in circles for 5 pages as I repeat the same very straightforward arguments over and over while you and others keep repeating the same cycle of counters until we arrive back at the same starting point again.

I will give you a hint of things to come though:

Quote:
That might possibly have been part of the reason it was originally sanctioned by the government, but that is no longer an issue, or else the government would annul any marriage that did not produce offspring within a reasonable amount of time.


You're inserting your own assumptions there. Saying that something may have originally been for one reason, but isn't anymore is circular when you're the one arguing for the very changes that would make it not be about that original reason anymore.

Just sayin'...

I don't agree that THE CRITERIA for marriage has to do with THE possibility of that couple generating a child. There are many different reasons now for getting married, and there used to be many different reasons for getting married. Only some of them have to do with children, in both cases. Marriage as a social institution has evolved greatly over the past 2000 years.

Over time some of the other reasons for marriage have notably included moving in with the person that you are in love with, moving in with someone for companionship, and/or moving in with someone for your own physical and financial security.

Some of the historical events, movements and social changes that have changed how marriages operate are the Protestant revolution, Enlightenment philosophies, the industrial revolution, the final liberation of all peasants from the old feudal laws in the 1700's in America and France, and the 1830s in Britain, the introduction of standing police forces and application of law to all people of whatever class equally, the womens' liberation movement, WW1, WW2, and of course mass-produced condoms and the contraceptive pill.

We have moved waaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaay beyond the old institution of marriage, and most of the old reasons for marriage, and the old traditions around marriage. Can you imagine some-one locking their spouse up in a Scold's Bridle these days? I like to think that modern marriages are generally much, much, much nicer institutions than they used to be.
#158 Oct 14 2008 at 6:05 AM Rating: Good
gbaji wrote:
You're changing the subject.


Actually, I'm not changing the subject. I didn't suggest that marriage might be for procreation only, I'm arguing against that.

gbaji wrote:
Can we agree that if the criteria for marriage has to do with the possibility of that couple generating a child that it certainly makes sense to restrict it to a couple consisting of one man and one woman?


Not only can we not agree with that, it's an idiotic scenario to present, seeing as how that is not the criteria for marriage, and I won't indulge your ideas that it might be.

gbaji wrote:
You're inserting your own assumptions there. Saying that something may have originally been for one reason, but isn't anymore is circular when you're the one arguing for the very changes that would make it not be about that original reason anymore.

Just sayin'...


No, it's not circular at all. Marriage has been many, many things during it's long life, and it's always evolving. You have suggested before that marriage was created for procreation, not me. That is not an idea I have ever ascribed to. I was giving you the benefit of the doubt by saying, "it might have been for that at one time..." because really, whether that was the reason that marriage was created or not makes absolutely no difference now. It's obviously not the reason that marriage exists today.

Edited, Oct 14th 2008 8:59am by Belkira
#160 Oct 14 2008 at 6:12 AM Rating: Excellent
knoxsouthy wrote:
Just because you don't agree with something doesn't make it right or wrong. Govn's give married couples tax breaks because of the possibility of reproduction, thereby extending the govn, or base of tax payers if you will. Homosexuals, just like singles, simply can't do this.


First, homosexuals can certainly hire a surrogate or get artificially impregnated. They are capable of reproducing. Second, another answer to this is to allow homosexuals to adopt. It's a damn shame that, because you like to thump your bible, a lot of kids are stuck in the foster system that could be adopted by homosexual couples and raised in a happy environment instead of feeling neglected and unloved.

knoxsouthy wrote:
This isn't even addressing the religious implications.


There's no reason to address any religious implications. Religion has no place in the government. And as long as the government is in the business of issuing marriage licenses and marrying couples (via a justice of the peace), then marriage loses it's religious meaning.

knoxsouthy wrote:
If you want to argue that homosexuals should be allowed to marry then we need to re-define marriage, the same way the nuclear family has been re-defined over the last 50yrs. The simple fact is married couples receive a tax break because of the possibility of children, and by extension the expansion of the republic. If homosexuals are allowed to marry and receive this tax break why shouldn't every other single person man or woman?


I agree. Marriage needs to be redefined... again. I also agree that every other single person, man or woman, should receive this "you might have kids some day, lets give you money" tax break.

It's nice to agree on something, isn't it?
#161 Oct 14 2008 at 6:16 AM Rating: Excellent
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knoxsouthy wrote:
Aripya,

Quote:
I don't agree that THE CRITERIA for marriage has to do with THE possibility of that couple generating a child. There are many different reasons now for getting married,


Just because you don't agree with something doesn't make it right or wrong. Govn's give married couples tax breaks because of the possibility of reproduction, thereby extending the govn, or base of tax payers if you will. Homosexuals, just like singles, simply can't do this. This isn't even addressing the religious implications. If you want to argue that homosexuals should be allowed to marry then we need to re-define marriage, the same way the nuclear family has been re-defined over the last 50yrs. The simple fact is married couples receive a tax break because of the possibility of children, and by extension the expansion of the republic. If homosexuals are allowed to marry and receive this tax break why shouldn't every other single person man or woman?


Gbaji was asking for everyone to agree on a premise so that the debate could proceed from there. I don't agree with his premise, so I'm not going to be arguing from that premise, and I was serving Gbaji notification of that.

Good morning Knox. Smiley: grin
#163 Oct 14 2008 at 6:23 AM Rating: Good
Skelly Poker Since 2008
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gbaji wrote:
Can we agree that if the criteria for marriage has to do with the possibility of that couple generating a child that it certainly makes sense to restrict it to a couple consisting of one man and one woman?
But same sex couples can generate children. Many do. They raise families, many even have dogs and cats and mini-vans - the whole bit. Now if you want to argue whether people should be allowed to procreate with whomever they'd like, then you best ask god whether test tube babies, in-vitro fertilization and fertility drugs are ok? ok.
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#164 Oct 14 2008 at 6:26 AM Rating: Excellent
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gbaji wrote:
Can we agree that if the criteria for marriage has to do with the possibility of that couple generating a child that it certainly makes sense to restrict it to a couple consisting of one man and one woman?


Certainly not. If that were the primary criterion, then polygamy ought to be encouraged or even subsidized.
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#165 Oct 14 2008 at 6:59 AM Rating: Excellent
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If the government wanted to promote the building of a family, not reproduction (which is a separate tax issue), you think they would certainly legally sanctify the union of two adults regardless of gender. The promotion of marriage when it comes to building a family has never been about biological reproduction and has always included the adoption of children, including kinship care. Not including same sex couples is really just about the historic discrimination of same sex couples, but opponents don't want to be open about it. People know that it is wrong to deny people rights based on bigotry.

As far as the OP goes, it makes sense to a certain extent to have a gay-friendly high school, which would give people a safe haven. I don't know. As a ***** woman, I certainly have chosen to live and work in a *****-friendly environment and wouldn't want that denied for any kid. On the other hand, the regular schools do need to be educated, with counselors and teachers understanding how to promote a more tolerant environment. The most vulnerable kids, which are often kids of color or poor white kids, would have difficulty outing themselves to their families and communities to the extent it takes to go to a separate high school.
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#167 Oct 14 2008 at 7:03 AM Rating: Excellent
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knoxsouthy wrote:
Anna,

Since when is marriage a right defined by the constitution?


What does that have to do with my post?
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#168 Oct 14 2008 at 7:45 AM Rating: Excellent
knoxsouthy wrote:
Anna,

Since when is marriage a right defined by the constitution?
They're called the 9th and 10th amendments. Smiley: schooled
#169 Oct 14 2008 at 1:02 PM Rating: Decent
Samira wrote:
gbaji wrote:
Can we agree that if the criteria for marriage has to do with the possibility of that couple generating a child that it certainly makes sense to restrict it to a couple consisting of one man and one woman?


Certainly not. If that were the primary criterion, then polygamy ought to be encouraged or even subsidized.


Yeah, knoxy, mind answering this one?

#170 Oct 14 2008 at 6:12 PM Rating: Default
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Baron von tarv wrote:
Quote:
Can we agree that if the criteria for marriage has to do with the possibility of that couple generating a child
But it doesn't have anything to do with having a child.


Yes it does. I was responding to a post that said that if Homosexual couples could not marry because they couldn't produce a child, then sterile heterosexual couples shouldn't be allowed to marry either.

I was addressing that one aspect of the issue. Nothing else. And that aspect specifically addressed the ability of a particular pair of people to generate a child together.


You may insist that marriage doesn't exist for that reason if you want, but that's another component of the argument. I just want to verify that if we do assume that marriage exists for that purpose then it *is* legitimate to deny it to homosexual couples on the grounds that the entire set of homosexual couples cannot possibly produce children, while only a small subset of heterosexual couples will not be able to (and it's hard to determine which ones at any given time).

Imagine for a moment that the imaginary "Ickyberries" are poisonous and will always make anyone who eats them sick. We might pass a law restricting the growing and serving of ickyberries due to this fact, right? Now imagine if someone argued that if we're going to outlaw ickyberries that we should make it illegal to serve any berries at all because it's possible that some might be bad and make people sick as well, so it's unfair to discriminate against ickyberries. You'd think they were nuts, right?

That's exactly how silly I think the argument that Damian brought up was. All couples consisting of two people of the same sex will fail to produce a child no matter how often they have sex. Only a small percentage of couples consisting of one adult male and one adult female will not produce children if they have sex, and we can't necessarily know which ones they are ahead of time. So, if we are operating on the assumption that marriage is connected to the production of children (we can go into greater detail about this if you want), then it is perfectly reasonable to deny it to same sex couples while not denying it to opposite sex couples.

That's *all* I was pointing at. Does that logic makes sense or not? Ignore the full issue. I think you're getting too caught up in the final position you believe in and are failing to look at each component of the argument by itself. Again. We can debate why marriage exists if you want, but that wasn't the issue I was responding to in my post.

If you disagree with my logic and can explain it with more than just a broad "But that's discrimination!", then by all means please do so...

Quote:
It has to do with commitment to ones partner and a public acknowledgement of a legally binding union which infers all the legal and social protection that brings.


I'll be glad to debate this with you. In fact, I'll give you an opener:


For what reason do we need a special legally recognized status for this? What is the benefit to society? What are the costs?



Oh. And for the record Joph. I'm far less opposed to Polygamy than I am to granting gay couples the legal status of "married". Of course, I know that someone will assume that this means I want to deny gay couples rights, and I'll have to spend 8 posts explaining why marriage isn't about rights, but about state granted benefits. Then a bunch of people will disagree with me. I'll explain that most of them have been taught the wrong definition of "rights". We'll spend a few more pages debating that. I'll quote Locke. Others will argue about the interpretation. I'll have to go line by line to explain how their very assumptions about the differences between rights and benefits are wrong, and how this skews their entire view of this (and many other issues). People will call me names when they run out of valid arguments. Then the thread will drop off the page.


And then we'll repeat the entire process in about 2 months or so. Does that about sum it up?
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#171 Oct 14 2008 at 6:19 PM Rating: Default
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Mindel wrote:
knoxsouthy wrote:
Anna,

Since when is marriage a right defined by the constitution?
They're called the 9th and 10th amendments.


Yes and no. It's a semantic issue. It's exactly the same as when someone argues that a "right to medical care" exists (which is absolutely correct), so the government must provide said medical care (which is incorrect). Or (more commonly), that by failing to provide something for someone, you are denying them their right to that thing. That's utterly false and backwards.

Having a right to something does not guarantee that you can get that thing. It only means that the government can't prevent you from having it. There is nothing preventing you and anyone from being "married". However, your marriage only qualifies for benefits from the state if it meets specific qualifications.

What you're being denied is not marriage, but a set of state benefits. You don't have a "right" to benefits. The second the thing you are demanding requires that someone else pay for it, it ceases to be a "right" and becomes a "benefit". Period.
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#172 Oct 14 2008 at 6:39 PM Rating: Good
So gbaji, why is giving the benefits of marriage to, say, 2 men, somehow worse than a man and a woman?

What's the huge difference? How will it hurt our society as a whole?

Edited, Oct 14th 2008 10:32pm by DaimenKain
#173 Oct 14 2008 at 7:17 PM Rating: Excellent
gbaji wrote:
Yes and no. It's a semantic issue. It's exactly the same as when someone argues that a "right to medical care" exists (which is absolutely correct), so the government must provide said medical care (which is incorrect). Or (more commonly), that by failing to provide something for someone, you are denying them their right to that thing. That's utterly false and backwards.
It's not even remotely the same thing. People don't have a right to medical care, but they do have the right to equal treatment under the law.

Quote:
Having a right to something does not guarantee that you can get that thing. It only means that the government can't prevent you from having it. There is nothing preventing you and anyone from being "married". However, your marriage only qualifies for benefits from the state if it meets specific qualifications.
Qualifications that are intrinsically discriminatory against a subset of the population based on an archaic religious proscription.

Quote:
What you're being denied is not marriage, but a set of state benefits. You don't have a "right" to benefits.
I'm not being denied benefits. I am being denied the right to visit my loved on when she's sick. I am being denied the right to make medical decisions for her in an emergency. I am being denied the right to say who will inherit my estate when I die. I am being denied the right to know that my partner will receive the social security death benefit that I supposedly pay for in my paycheck.

And with that said, it's really ******* presumptuous of you to declare what marriage means to people you don't even know. That's low.

Quote:
The second the thing you are demanding requires that someone else pay for it, it ceases to be a "right" and becomes a "benefit". Period.
What the **** are you talking about.
#174 Oct 14 2008 at 7:28 PM Rating: Excellent
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So same sex couples are like poisonous berries?





Smiley: frown
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#175 Oct 14 2008 at 8:05 PM Rating: Excellent
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Quote:
What the @#%^ are you talking about.


gbaji has a very um.. unique idea of what a "right" is. He's talking about his imagined conception of what a "right" is which, iirc, has something to do with his interpretation of enlightenment era liberalism. Think Locke.

though, it's not as if somehow reclassifying one imagined conception into another imagined conception actually means anything anyway

Quote:
Having a right to something does not guarantee that you can get that thing. [...] What you're being denied is not marriage, but a set of state benefits. You don't have a "right" to benefits.


We don't have rights in virtue of existing as humans; we imagine them with no ground whatsoever and modern attempts to argue for such a ground are representative of nothing more than vestigial natural law theory. We have rights purely because of the whims of other human beings who may or may not happen to recognize what we want to be rights, as bona-fide rights. We invent them (rights) as we go along with no good reason whatsoever, and there is no argument in the universe which argues for rights as having some sort of human-independent ontological status which is not logically bankrupt.

Rights are an ethical matter, and ethics are entirely specious and arbitrary anyway.

That being said, I'd much rather have society grant me "rights" which can enable the greatest amount of people to find pleasure and happiness. Recognizing gay marriage as a right performs this end, and hurts you in no way whatsoever.

Quote:
It's a semantic issue.


Color me shocked. I never even saw it coming.

Also

Marriage being created by humans may exist for whatever the hell purpose that humans invent at any given time. Marriage need not be procreative; you (gbaji) have been given many, many other conditions which ethically suffice for its implementation, the primary one of which being love. To ignore them is simply willful ignorance.

Edited, Oct 15th 2008 12:06am by Pensive
#176 Oct 14 2008 at 8:19 PM Rating: Good
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Quote:
Qualifications that are intrinsically discriminatory against a subset of the population based on an archaic religious proscription.


I don't know why I feel the urge to say this, but in gbaji's case at least, I don't think that this is the reason. To his credit, somehow, every one of his objections to gay people getting married seems to be economic.
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