Baron von tarv wrote:
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Can we agree that if the criteria for marriage has to do with the possibility of that couple generating a child
But it doesn't have anything to do with having a child.
Yes it does. I was responding to a post that said that if Homosexual couples could not marry because they couldn't produce a child, then sterile heterosexual couples shouldn't be allowed to marry either.
I was addressing that one aspect of the issue. Nothing else. And that aspect specifically addressed the ability of a particular pair of people to generate a child together.
You may insist that marriage doesn't exist for that reason if you want, but that's another component of the argument. I just want to verify that if we do assume that marriage exists for that purpose then it *is* legitimate to deny it to homosexual couples on the grounds that the entire set of homosexual couples cannot possibly produce children, while only a small subset of heterosexual couples will not be able to (and it's hard to determine which ones at any given time).
Imagine for a moment that the imaginary "Ickyberries" are poisonous and will always make anyone who eats them sick. We might pass a law restricting the growing and serving of ickyberries due to this fact, right? Now imagine if someone argued that if we're going to outlaw ickyberries that we should make it illegal to serve any berries at all because it's possible that some might be bad and make people sick as well, so it's unfair to discriminate against ickyberries. You'd think they were nuts, right?
That's exactly how silly I think the argument that Damian brought up was. All couples consisting of two people of the same sex will fail to produce a child no matter how often they have sex. Only a small percentage of couples consisting of one adult male and one adult female will not produce children if they have sex, and we can't necessarily know which ones they are ahead of time. So, if we are operating on the assumption that marriage is connected to the production of children (we can go into greater detail about this if you want), then it is perfectly reasonable to deny it to same sex couples while not denying it to opposite sex couples.
That's *all* I was pointing at. Does that logic makes sense or not? Ignore the full issue. I think you're getting too caught up in the final position you believe in and are failing to look at each component of the argument by itself. Again. We can debate why marriage exists if you want, but that wasn't the issue I was responding to in my post.
If you disagree with my logic and can explain it with more than just a broad "But that's discrimination!", then by all means please do so...
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It has to do with commitment to ones partner and a public acknowledgement of a legally binding union which infers all the legal and social protection that brings.
I'll be glad to debate this with you. In fact, I'll give you an opener:
For what reason do we need a special legally recognized status for this? What is the benefit to society? What are the costs?
Oh. And for the record Joph. I'm far less opposed to Polygamy than I am to granting gay couples the legal status of "married". Of course, I know that someone will assume that this means I want to deny gay couples rights, and I'll have to spend 8 posts explaining why marriage isn't about rights, but about state granted benefits. Then a bunch of people will disagree with me. I'll explain that most of them have been taught the wrong definition of "rights". We'll spend a few more pages debating that. I'll quote Locke. Others will argue about the interpretation. I'll have to go line by line to explain how their very assumptions about the differences between rights and benefits are wrong, and how this skews their entire view of this (and many other issues). People will call me names when they run out of valid arguments. Then the thread will drop off the page.
And then we'll repeat the entire process in about 2 months or so. Does that about sum it up?