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#452 May 13 2008 at 5:23 PM Rating: Good
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Smasharoo wrote:

Um. Even then. If the value of the fund increases, from the perspective of the manager's performance on the fund for his investors, he "created value".


Sure, and when I have a winning poker session I "created value".

Game over, thanks for playing, feel free to try again.


No, you didn't. As I pointed out earlier. No more money leaves the table then was there when you started. That's not the case over time with investments.

And yes. I'm aware that some capital gains are made on a buy/sell basis and also don't represent an increase in total capital in the economy. The key difference (again!), is that the overall result of that investment *does* increase the total size of the pie over time. No matter how many years you and 5 other people play poker, you'll never increase the total amount of money at the table. Ever.


Get it? Completely different things.

Quote:

Hedge funds are as likely to throw large amounts of money into highly speculative investments


No, they're not. By definition. The point of Hedge Funds is to minimize risk, not to maximize return.


No. By definition hedge funds are funds that are allowed to use a wider range of tactics with the money they manage. That's it. While the traditional hedge fund (and the source of the name) is about minimizing risk, that is not the totality of what a hedge fund can be. Today, many are about maximizing short term return, and *not* minimizing risk.


Quote:
Most of them under perform the S&P in return. They do so with significantly less volatility, however. What they're likely to do is seek arbitrage opportunities that are frequently artificial and break markets. The nature of arbitrage almost always guarantees a detrimental result to the rest of the market. See Soros snapping the bank of England in half and making $1,000,000,000 in a day in '92.


You're using an outdated assumed definition for the term "hedge fund". That's not the entirety of the definition. That's one type of hedge fund...


But semantics aside, you're still missing the point. Let's say a hedge fund exists specifically to make money on short term market panics (like the Soros example). You start with some stock (or a whole group of stocks) that's worth say $50/share today. You wait for a panic moment (or cause one if we want to use our tinfoil hats). In a few hours, the value drops to $40/share. You use the massive amounts of liquid assets in the fund to gobble 10 million shares at that price, because you know that this is just a short term dip. The very fact that you've done this shores up the price and it rebounds up to $48/share. You then sell it (possibly to the same funds that sold it a few hours earlier). Net profit for one day: 80 million dollars. You then sit there with your mass of cash waiting for the next panic event to occur...


What just happened? Well. In reality, nothing. Ok. The shares are now worth $2/share less, but let's assume they recover that over the next week or so and everything goes back to normal. Here's the deal. You want to tax that as income. And perhaps you have a point, since you've correctly noted that no actual "value" was added. Here's the problem though. No actual taxes were generated either. But wait! you say... What about the taxes on the 80 million dollars?! Sure. But what about the taxes that will now not be paid on the 100 million dollars of loss that occurred first? It's a wash. In fact, after the value bounces back, net taxes on that "dip" is.... zero.


See. While you can point to any individual instance of capital gains and say: "He didn't do anything positive for the economy", if you look at investment as a whole, you'll quickly realize that taxes gained from capital gains is only positive if the total gains exceed the total losses. Thus, while there may be many predatory buys and sells, from a public gain point of view, it mirrors exactly and *only* the degree of "gain" to the entire value of invested industry as a whole.


My point is that it's accurate to say that capital gains (as a whole) only occurs as a result of positive growth to the economy as a whole. While one person may gain during a loss, the net is still a loss (or a break even). Raising taxes on capital gains is equivalent to raising taxes on your own countries economic growth...

Edited, May 13th 2008 6:43pm by gbaji
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#453 May 13 2008 at 5:44 PM Rating: Good
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You're using an outdated assumed definition for the term "hedge fund". That's not the entirety of the definition. That's one type of hedge fund...


No, you're conflating the term with "Private Equity Fund," which isn't an uncommon mistake as the media occasionally gets it wrong also. They're two separate ideas. There are no hedge funds that have high risk. That's the point of the word "hedge".


You start with some stock (or a whole group of stocks) that's worth say $50/share today. You wait for a panic moment (or cause one if we want to use our tinfoil hats). In a few hours, the value drops to $40/share. You use the massive amounts of liquid assets in the fund to gobble 10 million shares at that price, because you know that this is just a short term dip.


That's not how equity markets work. Waiting for a stock's price to fall before buying it is a long play. No one does this if they think the stock is going to decrease in price, with the possible exception of poorly educated individual investors. Here's what would actually happen if you had knowledge that such a thing would happen, or that there was a high likelyhood of such:

You'd borrow as much money as possible, probably billions if you ran an average sized fund, and sell the stock short. Actually, you'd use more complicated derivatives to make a short play with even more leverage, but I'm oversimplifying for your sake. When you short sell a stock, you sell it to someone at the current price then cover by buying the same amount of shares at a lower price. You're borrowing the money to show you have capital reserves to cover if the stock goes up. There's no benefit to you if the stock increases in value. In fact, the best case scenario for you is for the stock to go to zero.

Once you cover, you're done. There's no long play involved. You want the market to contract, that's how you profit.


My point is that it's accurate to say that capital gains (as a whole) only occurs as a result of positive growth to the economy as a whole. While one person may gain during a loss, the net is still a loss (or a break even). Raising taxes on capital gains is equivalent to raising taxes on your own countries economic growth...


Of course it isn't. Lowering the tax rate on speculation whose goal is to break markets isn't benefiting economic growth in any way shape or form. If you want to cut capital gains on simple long stock plays held for three years, I'm fine with that. Cutting it on complex strategies designed to exploit weakness or inefficiencies in markets can't be sold as benefiting anyone except those profiting from same.





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#454 May 13 2008 at 6:06 PM Rating: Decent
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Smasharoo wrote:


You start with some stock (or a whole group of stocks) that's worth say $50/share today. You wait for a panic moment (or cause one if we want to use our tinfoil hats). In a few hours, the value drops to $40/share. You use the massive amounts of liquid assets in the fund to gobble 10 million shares at that price, because you know that this is just a short term dip.


That's not how equity markets work. Waiting for a stock's price to fall before buying it is a long play. No one does this if they think the stock is going to decrease in price, with the possible exception of poorly educated individual investors.


Well. If we're going to use the original strict definition of a hedge fund, the "hedge" includes both long and short buys. The shorts are used to hedge the long in case the value continues to drop. There's some variation, but the idea is to find the correct ratio of long to short buys based on the expected performance of the stock. You're playing on the fact that longs can only lose X, and shorts can only gain X, where X is the current value of the stock (if the value goes down). However, shorts can lose infinite amounts and longs can gain infinite amounts, if the stock goes up. Um... You're going to typically have more long then short in a standard hedge for exactly that reason.


If we're being picky... But you're correct that they play on volatility to make money.

Quote:
Of course it isn't. Lowering the tax rate on speculation whose goal is to break markets isn't benefiting economic growth in any way shape or form. If you want to cut capital gains on simple long stock plays held for three years, I'm fine with that. Cutting it on complex strategies designed to exploit weakness or inefficiencies in markets can't be sold as benefiting anyone except those profiting from same.



Ah. So you agree that the simplistic argument of "raising capital gains to equal income" isn't correct. If your problem is the predatory market tactics, how about we *not* push for some knee jerk idea that is the equivalent of tossing the baby out with the bathwater.

I'm quite sure I already said this earlier...



Um... I'll also point out {again!) that there's no tax gain from that process. The net tax effect from the government's perspective is zero (because every dollar of gain in a short is a loss for someone else). Did you just kinda miss that point? It should be pretty obvious that changing the tax rates is the wrong way to address this issue.
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#455 May 13 2008 at 6:23 PM Rating: Decent
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Well. If we're going to use the original strict definition of a hedge fund, the "hedge" includes both long and short buys. The shorts are used to hedge the long in case the value continues to drop.


No. *Risk* is what's being hedged. If there's less volatility short selling a collapsing market, that's where all the money will go.


However, shorts can lose infinite amounts and longs can gain infinite amounts, if the stock goes up. Um... You're going to typically have more long then short in a standard hedge for exactly that reason.


You're going to have no stock owned at all in virtually every fund, and this where I can't easily explain some things to you. You may have long positions, but unless you're literally taking a company private you'll almost never have actual stock.


Ah. So you agree that the simplistic argument of "raising capital gains to equal income" isn't correct. If your problem is the predatory market tactics, how about we *not* push for some knee jerk idea that is the equivalent of tossing the baby out with the bathwater.


I'm not. Let me state again, I'm fine with low capital gains rates on long term investments of capital betting on expanding the economy. In point of fact, if the structure was tight enough, I'd be fine with NO taxation on this. The issue is taxation on pure speculation, and this is the problem with the current capital gains situation. Hedge funds specifically, and in a broader sense, all actively managed funds, allow pure speculation to be taxed identically to long term investing. This is wrong from every standpoint. It's bad for the economy, it's bad for tax revenue, it's just bad. Treating fund managers *income* from managing fund a something else with a vastly lower tax rate is just blatant pandering to the wealthy. Warren Buffet paying 15% for running Berkshire is ludicrous. He agrees.

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Disclaimer:

To make a long story short, I don't take any responsibility for anything I post here. It's not news, it's not truth, it's not serious. It's parody. It's satire. It's bitter. It's angsty. Your mother's a *****. You like to jack off dogs. That's right, you heard me. You like to grab that dog by the bone and rub it like a ski pole. Your dad? Gay. Your priest? Straight. **** off and let me post. It's not true, it's all in good fun. Now go away.

#456 May 13 2008 at 6:26 PM Rating: Decent
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Um... I'll also point out {again!) that there's no tax gain from that process. The net tax effect from the government's perspective is zero (because every dollar of gain in a short is a loss for someone else). Did you just kinda miss that point? It should be pretty obvious that changing the tax rates is the wrong way to address this issue.


I don't follow you here. Of course there's a tax gain if you tax short plays at a higher rate. The loss in taxes from the capital loss is smaller than the gain from the taxation of the short profit if it's at a higher rate.

I'm not sure how you'd find taxing people literally betting against the US economy at a higher rate than those betting for it a bad idea.

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Disclaimer:

To make a long story short, I don't take any responsibility for anything I post here. It's not news, it's not truth, it's not serious. It's parody. It's satire. It's bitter. It's angsty. Your mother's a *****. You like to jack off dogs. That's right, you heard me. You like to grab that dog by the bone and rub it like a ski pole. Your dad? Gay. Your priest? Straight. **** off and let me post. It's not true, it's all in good fun. Now go away.

#457 May 14 2008 at 2:51 PM Rating: Decent
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Smasharoo wrote:
I don't follow you here. Of course there's a tax gain if you tax short plays at a higher rate. The loss in taxes from the capital loss is smaller than the gain from the taxation of the short profit if it's at a higher rate.


Well. Technically, we do since shorts are always going to be short term capital gains (since the whole thing has to happen before a margin call comes in). Which is relevant to your argument that shorts shouldn't be taxed at a better rate then income. Most of the time, they aren't. They're just not good for the economy (which I agree with). Again though, if you want to do something about that sort of investment practice, then target that sort of investment practice. The position I was against was raising the "lowest" capital gains tax rate (ie: the one you get only when putting money into an investment and leaving it there for 18 or more months).

That argued change can *only* hurt exactly the type of investment that you agree is good for the economy and could (in your own words) be taxed at zero.


But on the specific issue at hand, what I was pointing out is that for every short that makes money, someone else loses an equal amount of money. Has to. Someone else buys the shares at the current price, and someone else sells the same number of shares back at the lower price. So, "out there" in the stock market, there's a net capital loss that's going to be exactly equal to the net capital gain from short selling. Always.

And since capital losses are directly subtracted from capital gains for purposes of taxes, this all washes out from the government's perspective. You're correct that there can be a negative economic effect from this, but I can't see any way that simply raising capital gains taxes is a relevant solution.

Quote:
I'm not sure how you'd find taxing people literally betting against the US economy at a higher rate than those betting for it a bad idea.


Again. Technically, we already tax them at a higher rate (same as income in fact). So I'm not sure what the relevance is here. You only get the lower capital gains tax rate if you hold the shares for a period of time. My point is that many people don't seem to understand this and attach some kind of negative connotation to "capital gains" taxes, as though those who qualify for the lower rate somehow didn't deserve it or are involved in predatory investment practices. That's simply not the case.


Hence, my earlier "throwing the baby out with the bathwater" comment. In your haste to punish predatory practices, you're actually not hurting them at all, but are hurting all the honest investors who's actions do help the economy greatly. That's why simply raising the capital gains tax rate is the absolute wrong thing to do.

Edited, May 14th 2008 3:52pm by gbaji
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#458 May 14 2008 at 3:03 PM Rating: Decent
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Well. Technically, we do since shorts are always going to be short term capital gains


No.


(since the whole thing has to happen before a margin call comes in)


Please don't use phrases you don't understand. "margin call" for instance.

Thanks.

____________________________
Disclaimer:

To make a long story short, I don't take any responsibility for anything I post here. It's not news, it's not truth, it's not serious. It's parody. It's satire. It's bitter. It's angsty. Your mother's a *****. You like to jack off dogs. That's right, you heard me. You like to grab that dog by the bone and rub it like a ski pole. Your dad? Gay. Your priest? Straight. **** off and let me post. It's not true, it's all in good fun. Now go away.

#459 May 14 2008 at 3:17 PM Rating: Decent
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Smasharoo wrote:

Well. Technically, we do since shorts are always going to be short term capital gains


No.


(since the whole thing has to happen before a margin call comes in)


Please don't use phrases you don't understand. "margin call" for instance.

Thanks.



Er? The way a short works is that you borrow shares from a broker (who in the US has to locate the shares in order to use them). He then sells the borrowed shares right then and pockets the cash. At this point, he's got a short amount of time before the margin call comes in on the borrowed shares. The margin call is not to the person who borrowed it, but to the person who bought the shares on margin in the first place (which is why the broker has extra shares sitting around to be borrowed in the first place). A margin is a promise to purchase those shares from the broker for a set price. They're usually placed by people who are going "long" on a stock. You buy shares today on margin, hope the price goes up, and then sell the shares, pay the margin, and pocket the difference (on which you also have to pay short terms capital gains taxes.

The broker has shares *because* someone else has purchased them on margin. The broker puts up the money to buy them (or one of his backers does). But the margin only lasts typically 30 days before it has to be paid. Either way the stock goes, the broker gets his commission, so he's solid. However, as I've just illustrated, for every single share available to go short, there's someone else on margin going long. One of them is going to make money. The other is going to lose money. Each in *exactly* the same proportion to eachother.

The relevance of the margin call is that this is the period of time that the share is available to be used for a long, and therefore *also* the period of time a short has to work as well. In either case, the buyer has to pony up the cash he promised when the time period runs out, and at that point, the broker *must* have the share in hand to give to him. Which means that the short seller has to complete his transaction during that time period as well.


The shares used to go short have to come from somewhere Smash. By US law, they have to be located before they can be used (ie: They have to really exist, not just be figments on paper). Since the only way to make money on a short is to borrow the shares (buying them washes out and doesn't work), there's always going to be a time issue involved before the shares have to change hands. Thus, they're always going to be short term capital gains on the transactions.


You brought up an example that's irrelevant to the issue at hand. Typical really...
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#460 May 14 2008 at 4:52 PM Rating: Decent
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Since the only way to make money on a short is to borrow the shares (buying them washes out and doesn't work), there's always going to be a time issue involved before the shares have to change hands. Thus, they're always going to be short term capital gains on the transactions.


Hahaha, no. The cutting and pasting is funny, the complete lack of understanding is just sad.

Here's what a margin call is:

A demand for funds when you don't have enough collateral. That's it. If I deposit $1,000,000 in my margin account, and short sell 1000 shares of Intel at $25, I'd be issued a margin call if Intel went to $3000. There's no time frame involved. If it's obvious that I enough capital to cover the sale at the current price, a margin call will never be issued.

What you might be referring to is being "called away", (which in practice virtually never happens, we're talking 1 time in 100,000) which is a demand to cover your short because the brokerage has no other way to get shares. In modern markets, liquidity is such that this is almost impossible.

Tax regulations on straight short sales do consider the eventual profit to occur instantly on covering, and as such would be ineligeble for LTCG, but as I stated previously, I'm using a simple example for your sake. Fund managers aren't actually short selling stocks using stock, they're using derivatives with substantial tax advantages.




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Disclaimer:

To make a long story short, I don't take any responsibility for anything I post here. It's not news, it's not truth, it's not serious. It's parody. It's satire. It's bitter. It's angsty. Your mother's a *****. You like to jack off dogs. That's right, you heard me. You like to grab that dog by the bone and rub it like a ski pole. Your dad? Gay. Your priest? Straight. **** off and let me post. It's not true, it's all in good fun. Now go away.

#461 May 14 2008 at 7:50 PM Rating: Default
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Smasharoo wrote:
Tax regulations on straight short sales do consider the eventual profit to occur instantly on covering, and as such would be ineligeble for LTCG, but as I stated previously, I'm using a simple example for your sake.


Ok. Let me translate this for the rest of the audience:

Smash just said that I'm correct that short selling does not qualify as a long term capital gain, and therefore does not get a preferential tax rate

Thus, it's irrelevant to even mention short selling in a discussion about why capital gains are taxed lower then income. Thank you for finally acknowledging my point.


Quote:
Fund managers aren't actually short selling stocks using stock, they're using derivatives with substantial tax advantages.


And yet, you insisted on discussing short sales instead, even after I said they were irrelevant to the discussion. Funny that...


Can we cut through the BS now please? Capital gains only qualify for the lower tax rates if you buy a stock (or other investment), hold it for 18 months, and then sell it. Not borrow. Not short sell. In other words, all my talk about how the rate is a reward for "doing the right thing" with your money was spot on.

Edited, May 14th 2008 8:51pm by gbaji
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More words please
#462 May 14 2008 at 8:55 PM Rating: Good
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Can we cut through the BS now please? Capital gains only qualify for the lower tax rates if you buy a stock (or other investment), hold it for 18 months, and then sell it. Not borrow. Not short sell. In other words, all my talk about how the rate is a reward for "doing the right thing" with your money was spot on.


Hi. No. Ten seconds of research would tell you (or anyone) that this isn't the case.

I was avoiding referencing the actual structures, which you have no hope of understanding, so we could discuss this rationally.

Apparently you'd rather place your hands over your ears and scream than listen, which is hardly surprising, but has gotten old.

Here's the current tax code on some derivative instruments:

http://www.irs.ustreas.gov/pub/irs-pdf/p550.pdf

I know you won't understand it, but rather than completely ******* guessing as you are now, maybe give it a go and quote directly from it so I can stop wasting time explaining very, very, simple things to you.

Thanks.




____________________________
Disclaimer:

To make a long story short, I don't take any responsibility for anything I post here. It's not news, it's not truth, it's not serious. It's parody. It's satire. It's bitter. It's angsty. Your mother's a *****. You like to jack off dogs. That's right, you heard me. You like to grab that dog by the bone and rub it like a ski pole. Your dad? Gay. Your priest? Straight. **** off and let me post. It's not true, it's all in good fun. Now go away.

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