Monsieur RedPhoenixxx wrote:
No, he wrote in teaties in response to Robert Filmer's Patriarcha: The Natural Power of Kings, which was published in 1680. It was a specifically written against the doctrine of the hereditary principle.
So was the Declaration of Independance. Not getting your point here.
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Second his whole doctrine was very simplistic. It was great as an antithesis to hereditary power, but it's nowhere near good enough as model for modern societites.
And yet, strangely enough, modern societies are modeled after it (or were at least). When did his work cease to be "good enough"? Did we replace the idea of "liberty from government" with something else better? What exactly is that then?
I would submit that you are correct to a degree. We have replaced his ideas with others. However, I don't believe those newer ideas are "better" simply because they are "newer". In many ways the new ideas (socialism under multiple names really) are a return to many of the bad ideas that Locke argued against. Hence, the continued relevance of his work.
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Or are you arguing that it's now perfectly ok for governments to have that much power now, but was wrong back then?
I'm arguing that you taking arguments made in teh 18th Century against the hereditary power of kings and using them against elected governments in democracies is a bit weak.
Except that his positions, while certainly aimed at hereditery power, were not exclusive to them. Your argument is like saying that if I tell someone that looking both ways before crossing the street is a good idea because you might get hit by a car, that this advice in general (looking before proceeding) is no longer relevant if we live in a society that doesn't have cars. The advice is good advice all the time, regardless of the specifics.
And in exactly the same way, striving to limit government power is *always* a good thing, whether that government came to be as a result of hereditary inheritance or a vote of the people. Assuming that a government elected via democratic process is immune to abuse and corruption is absurd. Yet for your position on this topic to be correct, we must assume that democracies are somehow magically immune to those things.
That's going to be a tough sell Red. Good luck with that.
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But none of you have adequately explained why allowing governments to have the power to take from one group and give to another is less harmful today then it was back then..
A start is the fact it's a democracy.
Hah. Like I said. Good luck with that. You're really going to have to do more then just proclaim that since we're talking about a
democracy that this magically makes everything ok.
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And, for argument's sake, Locke talked about consent too. Because under his system, the state would be forced to take property from man too in certain situations, like war. Under his social contract, everyone in society gives their consent. It's a pre-requisite.
Yes. But he also talked about how this should be done only with great care and caution. Not just done willy-nilly because a majority think's it's a great idea (to put it in democratic terms).
Why do you think we have a Bill of Rights here in the US Red? Afterall, if a democratic process always results in the best decision "for the people", why do we need amendments ensuring those protections? Clearly (again) your assumptions are wrong. If they were right, we wouldn't need a Bill of Rights in our Constitution. We have one. We need one. We've even added to it over time. One would gather from that that it's become *more" important over time, not less, that we protect the individual from the decisions of the majority.
I'll ask again. What evidence do you have that the importance of Lockes statements about limiting the power of government is less valid today under democracy then it was in his day under monarchy?
Edited, Jun 21st 2007 4:48pm by gbaji