It says:
Quote:
(3) A PERSON WHO HAS ACTUAL KNOWLEDGE THAT A FEMALE INDIVIDUAL IS PREGNANT SHALL NOT DO ANY OF THE FOLLOWING WITH THE INTENT TO COMPEL A PREGNANT FEMALE TO SEEK AN ABORTION:
(A) COMMIT OR ATTEMPT TO COMMIT AN ACT PROSCRIBED UNDER SECTION 81, 81A, 83, 84, 86, OR 411H AGAINST THE PREGNANT FEMALE OR A FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD MEMBER.
(B) FILE OR ATTEMPT TO FILE FOR A DIVORCE FROM THE PREGNANT FEMALE.
(C) WITHDRAW OR ATTEMPT TO WITHDRAW FINANCIAL SUPPORT FROM THE PREGNANT FEMALE THAT HAD PREVIOUSLY BEEN SUPPLIED OR OFFERED TO THE PREGNANT FEMALE.
(D) CHANGE OR ATTEMPT TO CHANGE AN EXISTING HOUSING OR
COHABITATION ARRANGEMENT WITH THE PREGNANT FEMALE.
(A) COMMIT OR ATTEMPT TO COMMIT AN ACT PROSCRIBED UNDER SECTION 81, 81A, 83, 84, 86, OR 411H AGAINST THE PREGNANT FEMALE OR A FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD MEMBER.
(B) FILE OR ATTEMPT TO FILE FOR A DIVORCE FROM THE PREGNANT FEMALE.
(C) WITHDRAW OR ATTEMPT TO WITHDRAW FINANCIAL SUPPORT FROM THE PREGNANT FEMALE THAT HAD PREVIOUSLY BEEN SUPPLIED OR OFFERED TO THE PREGNANT FEMALE.
(D) CHANGE OR ATTEMPT TO CHANGE AN EXISTING HOUSING OR
COHABITATION ARRANGEMENT WITH THE PREGNANT FEMALE.
Now, i'm not an expert on US law, and proving "intent" seems very difficult, if not impossible. But this appears to me as a law banning people from divrocing their wife, or leaving their girlfriend if they are pregnant.
The thing that bugs me, apart from the fact it's completely crazy, is this:
Quote:
WITH THE INTENT TO COMPEL A PREGNANT FEMALE TO SEEK AN ABORTION
How do you prove intent? If it's not expressed, surely it's impossible to prove. And if it's impossible to prove, what's the point of this law?
And if it's not impossible to prove, does it mean it is implied, and that it's therefore illegal to break-up/move out/divorce your partner if she's pregnant?
Edited, Dec 7th 2006 6:20am by RedPhoenixxxxxx
