gbaji wrote:
explain to me how a policy of dealing with terrorist groups via repeated negotiation and giving them apparently infinite chances (I'm talking specifically to the Hezbollah result in Lebanon) is markedly different from that same policy when applied to Germany in the 30s.
My pleasure.
First, you're not "talking specifically about Hezbollah", since the latter were not given "infinite chances".
Second, how is the policy different? Hmm, where do I start...
Hezzbollah is *not* an industrial nation-state, with an all-powerful head of state, a specific hierarchical system built around it, 45 million people, and a whole economy directed towards building the strongest army the world has ever seen. Hezbollah's ultimate goal is not to invade neighbouring countries. Nor to turn them into a fascist regime. Nor to send a certain part of the population into death camps. Hezbollah never decided to invade its neighbouring country. And then another. And then another. And then start a world war based on a pseudo-scientific race superiority complex.
Hezbollah is a resistance movment that was set-up to repel Israel from Lebanon's territory. It does not invade other countries, not set-up gas chamber for Jews. Hezbollah would cease to exist as a legitimate resistance movement the second Israel complies with UN Resolutions and withdraws from Lebanese territory. Finally, Hezbollah is not that powerful, and simple diplomatic pressure on Syria and Iran would lead to its death.
So how you can even compare "appeasement" in those two issues (WWII and the Israel-Hezbollah conflict) is completely beyond me... I guess it just shows how your incredibly simplistic mind works.
gbaji wrote:
He's not comparing anyone to **** appeasers. He's saying that the practice of appeasement itself is a flawed one, regardless of *who* you are appeasing
Such bullsh
i. What has "appeasement" got to do with Iraq?
Is war the only alternative to appeasement? Are negotiations "appeasement"? When the US fund and support the dictatorial regimes of Egypt and Saudi Arabia, is that not a form of "appeasement"?
Rumsfeld is not trying to explain some geopolitical truth or theory about appeasing. He knows, as you do, that the current situation has nothing to do with "appeasement", either in general, or during WWII.
What he is doing, the clever boy, is comparing Hitler to Saddam, and **** Germany to Baath Iraq, without being too explicit about it so that pricks like you can defend him. Just like when they link 9/11 and Iraq. All of which is neither surprising, not especially shocking coming from him.
That you try to pretend he is NOT doing that, but instead giving a lecture on the merits of abstract appeasement in international relations, is pretty funny. Though neither surprising nor shocking either.